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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

14.06.2025 04:52

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

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There's no rule.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Why did Cartman love Heidi purely with heart, her being the first one he ever did, but then one day Butters tells him that all women are manipulative and then he began to believe that she was a bad person and pretended to be a victim?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

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If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.